Department of Math and Computer Science
Problems of the Month 2000

Feb Mar Apr May Jun Jul Aug Sep Oct Nov Dec





Problem for 2000 February

Proposed by Dan Jurca

Prove that if z Î C and 1 < |z|, then
¥
å
n=1 
 1

zn+1
 +  ¥
å
n=1 
 (-1)n

zn-1
=0.


Solution by the proposer

We shall prove a more general result. Precisely, we show
z Î C and 1 < |z| Þ  ¥
å
n=1 
 1

zn+1
 +  ¥
å
n=1 
 (-1)n

zn-1
=0.
For if 1 < |z|, then 1 £Þ
 1

zd+1
=  z-d

1+z-d
=  z-d

1-(-z-d)
=z-d-z-2d+z-3d-z-4d+-¼
=- ¥
å
q=1 
(-1)qz-dq,   and
 (-1)d

zd-1
=(-1)d  z-d

1-z-d
=(-1)d(z-d+z-2d+z-3d+z-4d+¼)
=(-1)d ¥
å
q=1 
z-dq.
Hence 1 < |z| Þ
¥
å
n=1 
 1

zn+1
 +  ¥
å
n=1 
 (-1)n

zn-1
= ¥
å
d=1 
 1

zd+1
 +  ¥
å
d=1 
 (-1)d

zd-1
= ¥
å
d=1 
é
ë
- ¥
å
q=1 
(-1)qz-dq + (-1)d ¥
å
q=1 
z-dq ù
û
= ¥
å
d=1 
¥
å
q=1 
é
ë
(-1)d-(-1)q ù
û
z-dq
= ¥
å
n=1 

å
d|n 
é
ë
(-1)d-(-1)n/d ù
û
z-n
=0,   since
a Î C, 1 £Þ 
å
d|n 
(ad-an/d)
=0.

Also solved by Ed Keller, Massoud Malek, and John M. Sayer.




Problem for 2000 March

Proposed by Dan Jurca

This two-part problem involves bn, the number of binary trees with n nodes (0 £ n), so may interest students of computer science. Recall
b0
=1
b1
=1
b2
=2
b3
=5,
and more generally one may compute bn recursively as follows
b0
=1,
1 £Þ bn
= n-1
å
i=0 
bibn-1-i,
or using the closed formula
0 £Þ bn=  1

n+1
æ
è
2n
n
ö
ø
.

a.
Show that bn equals an odd integer if and only if there exists a nonnegative integer p such that n=2p-1.
b.
The table printed below shows the time required to calculate bn for the first few values of n using a C program, also shown below, which evaluates bn recursively. Examination of the table shows that if 3 £ n, then the time to compute bn closely approximates 3 times the time to compute bn-1. Explain this.
(The proposer compiled this program with the GNU compiler, and ran it under Red Hat Linux version 6.1 on a computer with a 200 MHz Pentium Pro microprocessor. Here ``usec'' means ``microsecond''.)

Solution by the proposer

a.
We shall prove the assertion by induction on n, observing that it hold for n £ 5. Suppose that 6 £ n and that 0 £ m < n Þ bm equals an odd integer if and only if there exists q such that m=2q-1. Assume first that bn equals an odd integer. Using the inductive hypothesis we have
bn
= n-1
å
i=0 
bibn-1-i
º b0bn-1+b1bn-2+b3bn-4+b7bn-8+¼+bn-2b1+bn-1b0   (mod 2).
Now bi º 1 (mod 2) if and only if i=2j-1, and bn-1-i º 1 (mod 2) if and only if n-1-i=2k-1. Hence each term in the sum above equals 0 (mod 2) unless n=2j+2k-1 for some j and k. Since, by assumption, bn º 1 (mod 2), there do exist j and k such that n=2j+2k-1. Now if j ¹ k, then the summation has two equal terms which therefore cancel mod 2, so it follows that j=k. Hence n=2j+2j-1 = 2j+1-1, so that the assertion holds also for n.
Next, if n=2p-1, 2 £ p, then since bn=åi=0n-1bib2p-2-i, the only terms which contribute an odd value to the sum are those for which i=2j-1, some j, and 2p-2-i=2p-2j-1=2k-1, some k; i.e., 2p=2j+2k. Then j=k=p-1, so the only term which contributes an odd value to the sum is the one with i=2p-1-1, so that bn equals an odd integer.
b.
Suppose evaluation of bn requires time tn. Study of the code shows that for some constants a, b, and c
t0=t1
=a,
2 £Þ tn
=2 n-1
å
i=0 
ti + bn + c.
Eliminating the recursion one finds (and checks by induction on n)
2 £Þ tn=(4a+5b/2+c)3n-2-b/2,
so that with A=(4a+5b/2+c)/9 and B=b/2 we have
2 £Þ tn=A·3n-B.
No other solution was received.





Problem for 2000 April
proposed by Dan Jurca

Find the sum of the first n terms of the following series.
12+22+42+72+112+162+222+292+372+462+562+¼


Solution by the proposer

We write Sn for the sum of the first n terms; then
Sn
= n
å
i=1 
ai2,   where
ai
=  i2-i+2

2
.
(The differences between consecutive ai make an arithmetic series, so that ai equals some quadratic in i; one finds easily that the above formula holds for ai.)
Hence
Sn
= n
å
i=1 
é
ë
 i2-i+2

2
ù
û
2

 
=  1

4
n
å
i=1 
(i4-2i3+5i2-4i+4)
=  1

4
n
å
i=1 
i4-  1

2
n
å
i=1 
i3+  5

4
n
å
i=1 
i2- n
å
i=1 
i+ n
å
i=1 
1
=  6n5+15n4+10n3-n

120
-  n4+2n3+n2

8
+  10n3+15n2+5n

24
-  n2+n

2
+n
=  6n5+30n3+84n

120
=  n5+5n3+14n

20
.


Also solved by William Loewe, John Sayer, and Professor Ed Keller




Problem for 2000 May

proposed by Dan Jurca

a.
Prove that if n is an integer and 2 £ n, then
 1

2
< æ
è
1-  1

4
ö
ø
· æ
è
1-  1

9
ö
ø
· æ
è
1-  1

16
ö
ø
· ¼ · æ
è
1-  1

n2
ö
ø
.
b.
Determine

lim
n®¥ 
æ
è
1-  1

4
ö
ø
· æ
è
1-  1

9
ö
ø
· æ
è
1-  1

16
ö
ø
· ¼ · æ
è
1-  1

n2
ö
ø
.



Solution by the proposer

For 2 £ n write
pn= æ
è
1-  1

4
ö
ø
· æ
è
1-  1

9
ö
ø
· æ
è
1-  1

16
ö
ø
· ¼ · æ
è
1-  1

n2
ö
ø
;
then we show by induction that
2 £Þ pn=  1

2
+  1

2n
.
Since p2=1-1/4=3/4=1/2+1/4=1/2+[ 1/2·2], the assertion certainly holds if n=2.

Next assume 3 £ n, and pn-1=1/2+[ 1/(2(n-1))]. Then
pn
=pn-1· æ
è
1-  1

n2
ö
ø
= æ
è
 1

2
+  1

2n-2
ö
ø
·  n2-1

n2
=  1

2
· æ
è
1+  1

n-1
ö
ø
·  (n-1)(n+1)

n2
=  1

2
·  n

n-1
·  (n-1)(n+1)

n2
=  1

2
·  n+1

n
=  1

2
+  1

2n
,
so the assertion holds by induction on n.

Part a. now follows at once, and clearly limn®¥pn=1/2; in fact (pn)n=2¥¯1/2.


Also solved by Matthew Hubbard, John M. Sayer, Dr. Louis Villanueva, and Professor Bill Nico




Problem for 2000 June

proposed by Dan Jurca

Recall the following notation.
1 £Þ HN= N
å
n=1 
 1

n
,
the N-th partial sum of the harmonic series, and let H0=0.



Now suppose that a and b are integers, and that 0 < a < b.

a.
Prove that
¥
å
n=0 
 1

(n+a)(n+b)
=  1

b-a
æ
è
Hb-1-Ha-1 ö
ø
.
b.
Call the sum above S(a,b); prove that there exists a polynomial p(x) with integer coefficients and degree b-a such that
0 £Þ  N
å
n=0 
 1

(n+a)(n+b)
=S(a,b)-  1

b-a
·  p¢(N)

p(N)
,
where p¢ is the derivative of p.



Solution by the proposer


0 £Þ  N
å
n=0 
 b-a

(n+a)(n+b)
= N
å
n=0 
æ
è
 1

n+a
-  1

n+b
ö
ø
= b-a-1
å
n=0 
æ
è
 1

n+a
-  1

n+b
ö
ø
+ N
å
n=b-a 
æ
è
 1

n+a
-  1

n+b
ö
ø
= b-a-1
å
n=0 
 1

n+a
- b-a-1
å
n=0 
 1

n+b
+ N
å
n=b-a 
 1

n+a
- N
å
n=b-a 
 1

n+b
= b-a-1
å
n=0 
 1

n+a
- 2b-2a-1
å
n=b-a 
 1

n+a
+ N
å
n=b-a 
 1

n+a
- N
å
n=b-a 
 1

n+b
= b-a-1
å
n=0 
 1

n+a
+ N
å
n=2b-2a 
 1

n+a
- N
å
n=b-a 
 1

n+b
= b-a-1
å
n=0 
 1

n+a
+ N
å
n=2b-2a 
 1

n+a
- N+b-a
å
n=2b-2a 
 1

n+a
= b-a-1
å
n=0 
 1

n+a
- N+b-a
å
n=N+1 
 1

n+a
= b-a-1
å
n=0 
 1

n+a
- N
å
n=N+a-b+1 
 1

n+b
.
(This may also be checked by induction on N.) Now the second summation is the sum of b-a terms, so clearly approaches 0 as N®¥. Hence
¥
å
n=0 
 b-a

(n+a)(n+b)
= b-a-1
å
n=0 
 1

n+a
=  1

a
+  1

a+1
¼ +  1

b-1
=Hb-1-Ha-1,
so dividing by (the non-zero) b-a yields a.

Now define
p(x)
= b-a
Õ
i=1 
(x+a+i)
=(x+a+1)·(x+a+2)· ¼ ·(x+b),
so that p(x) is an integer polynomial of degree b-a. Then, by the product rule,
p¢(x)= b-a
å
i=1 

Õ
[(1 £ j £ b-a) || (j ¹ i)] 
(x+a+j).
But since
N
å
n=0 
 b-a

(n+a)(n+b)
= b-a+1
å
n=0 
 1

n+a
- N
å
n=N+a-b+1 
 1

n+b
=(b-a)S(a,b)- N
å
n=N+a-b+1 
 1

n+b
,
and
N
å
n=N+a-b+1 
 1

n+b
=  1

N+a+1
+  1

N+a+2
¼ +  1

N+b
=  p¢(N)

p(N)
,
we have also the result asserted in b.






Here is an example. Consider a=2 and b=6. Then
S(a,b)
=S(2,6)
= ¥
å
n=0 
 1

(n+2)(n+6)
=  1

6-2
æ
è
H5-H1 ö
ø
=  1

4
é
ë
(1+1/2+1/3+1/4+1/5)-1 ù
û
=  1

4
·  77

60
,   and
p(x)
=(x+3)(x+4)(x+5)(x+6)
=x4+18x3+119x2+342x+360,   whence
p¢(x)
=4x3+54x2+238x+342,   so that
0 £Þ  N
å
n=0 
 1

(n+2)(n+6)
=  1

4
æ
è
 77

60
-  4N3+54N2+238N+342

N4+18N3+119N2+342N+360
ö
ø
=  77

240
-  4N3+54N2+238N+342

4N4+72N3+476N2+1368N+1440
.


Also solved by John M. Sayer.




Problem for 2000 July

proposed by Dan Jurca

The n-simplex \trianglen may be defined as follows.
\trianglen={(x0,x1,¼,xn) Î Rn+1 | 0 £ i £Þ 0 £ xiand x0+x1+¼+xn=1}
The sketch below shows \triangle0=A, \triangle1=AB, \triangle2=ABC; \triangle3 is a tetrahedron in R4.

Let us say that the 0-volume of a finite set of points is the number of points in the set, the 1-volume of a line segment is the length of the segment, the 2-volume of a polygonal region is the area of the region, the 3-volume of a polyhedron is the ordinary volume, etc.


Find a formula for the n-volume of \trianglen.



Solution by the proposer


Writing Vn for the n-volume of \trianglen we show by induction on n that 0 £Þ Vn=Ö{n+1}/n!. This clearly holds if n=0 (for \triangle0 is a set consisting of a single point), or n=1 (for \triangle1 is a line segment of length Ö2), or n=2 (for \triangle2 is the closed region bounded by an equilateral triangle of side Ö2). So suppose that 2 £ n and Vn-1=Ön/(n-1)!. The following figure

FIGURE NOT AVAILABLE


shows that we may consider \trianglen as an n-dimensional ``pyramid'' with base \trianglen-1 and height, say, hn. (The figure shows \triangle3 as a tetrahedron with each side of length Ö2, base \triangle2 an equilateral triangle with sides of length Ö2, and height h3). Now \trianglen may be considered made up of slices which look like \trianglen-1; the (n-1)-volume of such a slice at distance x from the apex of \trianglen is equal to (x/hn)n-1×Vn-1. (This clearly holds if x=0 or x=hn; for 0 < x < hn it holds almost by definition of (n-1)-volume-the (n-1)-volume of an (n-1)-dimensional cube is the (n-1)-th power of the length of an edge of the cube.) Therefore we have
1 £Þ Vn
= ó
õ
hn

0 
æ
è
 x

hn
ö
ø
n-1

 
Vn-1\thinspace dx
=  1

n
hnVn-1.

To complete the argument by induction we need to determine hn. Now hn is the distance from the point (0,0,¼,0,1) Î Rn+1 to \trianglen-1, which may clearly be assumed to be a subset of Rn+1 as well as of Rn. Thus hn is the distance from (0,0,¼,0,1) to \trianglen-1={(x0,x1,¼,xn-1,0) | 0 £ xi and x0+x1+¼+xn-1=1}. We may compute this distance by minimizing the square of the distance from the apex, (0,0,¼,0,1), to the points in \trianglen-1. So consider
f(x0,x1,¼,xn-2)
=x02+x12+¼+xn-12+1
=x02+x12+¼+(1-x0-x1-¼-xn-2)2+1.
Computing the partial derivatives of f with respect to the xi we have
 f

xi
(x0,x1,¼,xn-2)
=2xi+2(1-x0-x1-¼-xn-2-1
=2xi-2+2x0+2x1+¼+2xn-2,
so setting each of these n-1 partial derivatives to zero yields the following (n-1)×(n-1) linear system.
é
ê
ê
ê
ê
ê
ê
ê
ê
ê
ë
2
1
1
¼
1
1
2
1
¼
1
1
1
2
¼
1
:
:
:
···
:
1
1
1
¼
2
ù
ú
ú
ú
ú
ú
ú
ú
ú
ú
û
é
ê
ê
ê
ê
ê
ê
ê
ê
ê
ë
x0
x1
x2
:
xn-2
ù
ú
ú
ú
ú
ú
ú
ú
ú
ú
û
= é
ê
ê
ê
ê
ê
ê
ê
ê
ê
ë
1
1
1
:
1
ù
ú
ú
ú
ú
ú
ú
ú
ú
ú
û
The coefficient matrix, say A, above is nonsingular. In fact the determinant equals n. This may be verified by observing that A has the following n-1 linearly independent eigenvectors.
v1
=(1,1,1,¼,1)T
v2
=(1,-1,0,0,¼,0,0)T
v3
=(1,0,-1,0,¼,0,0)T
v4
=(1,0,0,-1,¼,0,0)T
:
vn-1
=(1,0,0,0,¼,0,-1)T,
with associated eigenvalues n,1,1,1,¼,1. Therefore there exists a unique solution of the linear system; by inspection it is xi=1/n, for i=0,1,¼,n-2. It follows that hn, the distance from the apex (0,0,¼,0,1) of \trianglen to its base \trianglen-1, is equal to the distance in Rn+1 from the point (0,0,¼,0,1) to the point (1/n,1/n,¼,1/n,0), which equals
hn
=
Ö
 

(1/n)2+(1/n)2+¼+(1/n)2+1
 
=
Ö
 

1/n+1
 
=   æ
Ö

 n+1

n
 
.
We can now complete the inductive argument.
Vn
=  1

n
hnVn-1
=  1

n
×   æ
Ö

 n+1

n
 
×  Ön

(n-1)!
=

Ö

n+1

n!
,
as asserted.



It may be interesting to observe that (Vn)n=0¥®0 quite rapidly, and (hn)n=1¥®1.


Also solved by John M. Sayer




Problem for 2000 September

communicated by Dan Jurca

The following problems are taken from the delightful Conjecture and Proof by Miklós Laczkovich. The first concerns the Fermat numbers Fn, and the second concerns the numbers Fn+2.


The Fermat number Fn is 22n+1 where n is a non-negative integer. Thus
F0
=3
F1
=5
F2
=17
F3
=257
F4
=65,537
It is easy to show that F0, F1, F2, F3, and F4 are primes, and Pierre Fermat conjectured around 1640 that each Fn is prime. However, in 1732 Euler found that 641 divides F5; in fact F5=4,294,967,297=641×6,700,417; in 1880 it was found that 274,177 divides F6; and in 1970 it was found that F7 is the product of two primes consisting of 17 and 22 decimal digits, respectively. It is now known that Fn is composite if 5 £ n £ 24; no Fermat prime is known beyond F4. Gauss showed that the regular n-gon is constructible with unmarked straightedge and compass if and only if n equals a power of 2 times a product of distinct Fermat primes.



1.
Show that if 2 £ n, then Fn º 7(mod 10); i.e., show that if 2 £ n, then when Fn is written in base 10 the last digit is a 7.


2.
Write Gn=Fn+2, so that Gn=22n+3. Show that there exist infinitely many n such that Gn is composite.


Solution by Dan Jurca


Each assertion can be proved by mathematical induction.



1.
First we observe
1 £Þ Fn
=22n+1
=22n-1×2+1
=(22n-1)2+1
=(Fn-1-1)2+1
=Fn-12-2Fn-1+2.
Now F2=17; if 3 £ n and Fn-1 º 7(mod 10), then there exists some integer q such that Fn-1=10q+7, and then
Fn
=Fn-12-2Fn-1+2
=(10q+7)2-2(10q+7)+2
=100q2+140q+49-20q-14+2
=100q2+120q+37
=10(10q2+12q+3)+7,
so that Fn º 7(mod 10) as well. Hence by induction on n: 2 £Þ Fn º 7(mod 10).


2.
We shall show that 0 £Þ 7|G2k+3.
This is immediate if k=0, since G3=223+3=28+3=256+3=259=7×37.
Next we observe
1 £Þ Gn
=22n+3
=22n-1×2+3
=(22n-1)2+3
=(Gn-1-3)2+3
=Gn-12-6Gn-1+12,      so that
2 £Þ Gn
=(Gn-22-6Gn-2+12)2-6(Gn-22-6Gn-2+12)+12
=Gn-24-12Gn-23+54Gn-22+222Gn-2+84
=(Gn-23-12Gn-22+54Gn-2+222)Gn-2+84.
Then since 7|84, we have 2 £ n and 7| Gn-2 Þ 7|Gn. Thus by induction on k we have 0 £Þ 7|G2k+3, as asserted.
Therefore Gn is composite-indeed, divisible by 7-for infinitely many n.





Problem for 2000 October
communicated by Dan Lindquist

Prove:       If   [ a/(b-c)]+[ b/(c-a)]+[ c/(a-b)]=0,    then    [ a/((b-c)2)]+[ b/((c-a)2)]+[ c/((a-b)2)]=0.



Solution by Professor Massoud Malek

From the first equation we have
 a

(b-c)2
=-  b

(b-c)(c-a)
-  c

(b-c)(a-b)
= -  b(a-b)+c(c-a)

(a-b)(b-c)(c-a)
=-  ab-b2+c2-ac

(a-b)(b-c)(c-a)
 b

(c-a)2
=-  a

(c-a)(b-c)
-  c

(c-a)(a-b)
= -  a(a-b)+c(b-c)

(a-b)(b-c)(c-a)
=-  a2-ab+bc-c2

(a-b)(b-c)(c-a)
 c

(a-b)2
=-  a

(a-b)(b-c)
-  b

(a-b)(c-a)
= -  a(c-a)+b(b-c)

(a-b)(b-c)(c-a)
=-  ac-a2+b2-bc

(a-b)(b-c)(c-a)
so that by adding we obtain the asserted result:
 a

(b-c)2
+  b

(c-a)2
+  c

(a-b)2
=0.


Also solved by Dan Jurca, Stu Smith, and Dangthu Ta.




Problem for 2000 November

Proposed by Dan Jurca

For n=0, 1, 2, 3, ¼ the Pascal matrix Pn is the (n+1)×(n+1) matrix
Pn=(pij)0 £ i £ n,0 £ j £ n   where pij is the binomial coefficient  æ
è
i+j
i
ö
ø
.
For example,
P4= æ
ç
ç
ç
ç
ç
ç
ç
ç
ç
è
1
1
1
1
1
1
2
3
4
5
1
3
6
10
15
1
4
10
20
35
1
5
15
35
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Compute the determinant det(Pn) of Pn.


Solution by Professor Bill Nico

Row reduce from bottom up; i.e., subtract row n-1 from row n, then row n-2 from row n-1, etc., and finally row 0 from row 1. Then column reduce from right to left; i.e., subtract column n-1 from column n, then column n-2 from column n-1, etc., and finally column 0 from column 1. To see the result, let Qn be the following (n+1)×(n+1) matrix.
æ
ç
ç
ç
ç
ç
ç
ç
ç
ç
ç
ç
ç
ç
è
1
0
0
¼
0
0
0
-1
1
0
¼
0
0
0
0
-1
1
¼
0
0
0
¼
¼
···
···
¼
¼
¼
0
0
0